Benjamin believes that 1/2 is equivalent to 50% is he correct please explain why or why not

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(2) Answers

Chance077

Benjamin is correct because 1 is 100% and 1/2 is half of it. When You divide 100 by 2 you get 50. So, Benjamin is correct.

Finessegvd

He is correct because if you multiply [latex] \frac{1}{2} [/latex] by 50 to make denominator 100, the numerator is 50 so that would be [latex] \frac{50}{100} [/latex] which is equivalent to .5 or 50%.